Dear anonymous friend,
As I understand from your two posts:
1) Was the FTC of the then vacant regular post meant to be for just a year or until the post was filled by a regular candidate, whichever came first? Am I correct?
2) The FTC automatically expired after one year if the post remained unfilled by a regular candidate. Consequently, the FTC employee was released due to the non-renewal of the contract. If the post was not filled by a regular candidate within the one-year period, the existing contract would automatically end. Therefore, I cannot identify any illegality in this situation.
3) Unfortunately, the two subsequent posts do not mention whether the vacancy was later filled by a regular candidate, another FTC employee, or if it remained vacant.
4) Regarding the individual dispute raised by the former FTC employee under the IDAct, 1947, if he was a "workman" under the Act, he has the statutory right to pursue the matter regardless of the outcome. It is the management's responsibility to appropriately defend against the claim by referencing the conditional termination of the FTC based on the occurrence of either the lapse of one year or the filling of the vacancy with a regular candidate.
Thank you.